I have been working in the UAE as a teacher for the past year. My salary was calculated by the human resources department based on my CV and the years of experience listed there. Their calculation was five years of experience and I have signed a three-year contract based on this calculation and received an official notice that I passed the probationary period. My employer recently told me that my contract had been "pending" until now and that, after being reviewed, they have decided that the documentation provided for one of those years of experience is insufficient. They plan to reduce my salary to be based on four years of experience for the remaining two years of my contract. The "year" they are referring to is really two months of teaching practicum, so I'm not sure why they counted it in the first place. In addition, I was just informed that not only will they reduce my salary for the next two years but they will also deduct the difference from the year already past (about Dh500 for each of 11 months). Can my employer make these changes to a contractual agreement already in place? And can they then retroactively apply those changes to demand money that has already been paid to me?
The employment contract is a mutual agreement between the employer and employee and as long as the contract has been signed, neither party can introduce amendments on their own. If there is a miscalculation in relation to the salary or allowance but the salary is already being paid on this basis, the employer can correct it only with the approval of the employee. And any correction cannot be used retroactively, to recoup money paid, especially as in this case it is not the employee who erred.
My family has been friends with an Emirati family for 25 years and, due to the trusting relationship, we kept our valuables with them, namely most of our gold and Dh60,000 in cash. However, my family found that they turned their backs on us, accusing my mother of forgery and other fraud. They even filed a complaint at Naif police station against my mother, who had, with the Emirati family's permission, used one of their names to open a shop. The local family did not invest in it. One day, while the shop was closed, the Emirati mother's oldest daughter brought two men with her, broke the locks to the shop and took the goods. Police did not act as the shop was in her mother's name. The case was eventually closed but I would like to ask if we can file a case against the family in relation to our personal belongings? Can we also file a case relating to the goods stolen from the shop? And can we file a counter case against them for filing a case against my mother? Would filing these cases just involve doing so at a police station or would it require my family going through a lawyer?
In relation to the questions on crime and compensation, you need to consult a lawyer and explain the situation. With regards the shop, if you or your mother can prove that you have covered all the expenses related to it then you can file a case before court to claim your right to what you lost.
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